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Online Biology Quiz

Online Biology Quiz
Biology objective questions
For exam Containing Biology questions
Free Solved Biology Quiz
For India Competitive Exams
1. Consider the following statements about antigens:
1. They induce the formation of antibodies.
2. They provide immunity.
3. They are formed only within the body.
Of these statements, the correct ones are
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

2. The tooth with three roots is ?
(a) Molar
(b) Pre – molar
(c)Incisor
(d) Canine

3. In mammals, the part of the brain that has reached highest level of development and that has enabled humans to grow their own crop, invent machines ,develop language and art is
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(C) Medulla oblongata
(d) None of these

4. A person will have brown eyes, blue eyes or black eyes depending upon the particular pigment present in the ?
(a)Pupil
(b) Cornea
(c) Iris
(d) Choroid

5. Reflex action in the body is controlled by
(a) sensory nerves
(b) central nervous system
(c) motor nerves
(d) sympathetic nervous system

6. What is the maximum limit of sound intensity in decibel units beyond which a. person cannot hear?
(a)50
(b) 70
(c) 85
(d) 95

7. Which of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(a) Amnion
(b) Allantois
(c) Chorion
(d) Yolk sac

8. Which of the following combinations of chromosomes is present in males?
(a) XX
(b) XXX
(c) XY
(d) XYX

9 Biological death of a patient means death of tissues of the ?
(a) kidney
(b) heart
(c) lungs
(d) brain

10. During the development of an embryo, the formation of brain marks the beginning of organ formation. Eye in a vertebrate develops from midbrain. If after the formation of brain, the mid brain is destroyed, then what will be the resultant effect?
(a) Total failure of eye formation
(b) Development of a single eye
(c) Defective development of eyes
(d) Absence of vision in the eyes

11. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is ?
(a)280
(b) 290
(c) 300
(d) 310

12. Clotting of blood vessels is called
(a)Thrombosis
(b) Rheumatism
(c)Agglutinisation
(d) Fibrosis

13. Blood group of an individual is controlled by?
(a) shape of RBC
(b) shape of WBC
(c)genes
(d) hemoglobin

14. Which of the following forms an irreversible
complex with hemoglobin of blood?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Pure nitrogen gas
(d) A mixture of carbon dioxide and helium

15. If father has blood group A and mother has blood
group O, then which of the following blood groups may be found in their son?
(a) O
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) B,AB or O

16. If one chews an unsweetened chapati for a short time, a distinctly sweetish taste becomes notice able because
(a) carbohydrate is converted into sugar in the mouth.
(b)i protein is converted into sugar in the mouth.
(c) fat is converted into sugar in the mouth.
(d) vitamins are converted into sugar in the mouth.

17. Red Green colour blindness in man is known as
(a) Protanopia
(b) Deuteranopia
(c ) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Marfan’ s syndrome

18. A person with AB blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the
(a) presence of antibodies in his blood
(b) lack of antibodies in his blood
(c) lack of antigen in his blood
(d) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood

19. For transfusion, the ‘O’ blood group of a donor can be accepted by a person having blood group
(a) A
(b) B
(c) AB
(d) All of these

20. Which of the following structures (glands) is concerned with the production of cortisone hormone in man?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Testis
(c)Adrenal
(d) Pancreas

21. The most important function of perspiration is to
(a) lubricate the skin
(b) get rid of the body wastes
(c) regulate body temperature
(d)regulate body wastes

22. Human body needs a constant supply of proteins to survive. The first part of the digestive system to begin digesting proteins is
(a) mouth
(b)stomach
(c)small intestine
(d) large intestine

23. In human body, the leg bones are
(a) Humerus & Femur
(b) Fibula & Tibia
(c)Fibula & Ulna
(d) Tibia & Radius

24. All the veins carry deoxygenated blood, except
(a)Hepatic vein
(b) Subclavian vein
(c)Pulmonary vein
(d) Portal vein

25. The organ in the body which accumulates iodine is
(a)Pituitary gland
(b)Thymus
(c)Thyroid gland
(d) Spleen

26. In metabolism, enzymes act as ?
(a) promoter
(b) catalyst
(c) oxidant
(d) reductant

27. Life of RBC in human blood is of
(a)30 days
(b) 60 days
(c)120 days
(d) 15 hours

28. Red blood corpuscles are formed in
(a)Liver
(b)Small intestine
(c)Kidneys
(d) Bone marrow

29. The thyroid gland is situated near which of the
following organs?
(a) Liver
(b) Spleen
(c) Larynx
(d) Kidney

30. The salivary glands secrete saliva which contains
the enzyme?
(a) pepsin
(b) renin
(c) ptyalin
(d) lipase

31. Which sugar is present in considerable amount in
the blood?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c)Galactose
(d) Sucrose

32. The internal secretion of helps in digestion.
(a) citric acid
(b) sulphuric acid
(c) acetic acid
(d) hydrochloric acid

33, Saliva in man is ?
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) neutral
(d) None of these

34 Any foreign particle which stimulates the formation of antibodies is called ?
(a)histone
(b) antigen
(c)receptor
(d) antibiotic

35. The maximum temperature the human skin can tolerate without getting blisters is?
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) l00
36. How many teeth are known as milk teeth in human beings?
(a) 4
(b)12
(c) 20
(d) 28

37. The proportion of red blood corpuscles and white blood corpuscles in human body is
(a) 5:l
(b) 50:1
(c) 500:l
(d) 5000:l

38. In mammals,- the sequence of bones from shoulder to finger tips is
(a) Humerus, radius-ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges
(b) Humerus, metacarpals, carpals, radius-ulna, phalanges
(c) Radius- ulna, Humerus, metacarpals, carpals, phalanges
(d) Humerus, radius ulna, metacarpals, carpals, phalanges

39. If father and mother are possessing Rh +ve and Rh -ve respectively, their children will have the blood group with
(a)Rh +ve
(b) Rh -ye
(c) Rh neutral
(d) None of these

40. In which part are the carbohydrates stored as glycogen in human body?
(a)Stomach
(b) Pancreas
(c)Liver
(d) Duodenum

Answers:

1 a
2 a
3 a
4 c
5 c
6 c
7 a
8 c
9 d
10 c
11 d
12 a
13 c
14 a
15 a
16 a
17 a
18 b
19 d
20 c
21 b
22 b
23 b
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 d
29 c
30 c
31 a
32 d
33 b
34 b
35 a
36 c
37 c
38 a
39 a
40 c

digital electronics objective questions and answers MCQ

digital electronics objective questions and answers

MCQ Objective Test

objective questions and answers in digital electronics

Science and Engineering digital electronics objective questions with answers

objective qns and answers. on digital elctronic flip flops

basic electronics multiple choice questions
Basic Questions on

Digital Electronics

Flip Flops

Number System

Logic gates

Logic Families

Microproseeors

1. The voltage levels for a negative logic system

(a) must necessarily be negative

(b) could be negative or positive

(c) must necessarily be positive

(d) must necessarily be either zero or —5 V

2. The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is zero. It changes to 1 when a clock pulse is applied. The inputs Jn and Kn are respectively

(a) 1 and X

(b) 0 and X

(c) X and 0

(d) X and 1

3. The larger the RAM of a computer, the faster is its speed, since it eliminates

(a) need for ROM

(b) need for external memory

(c) frequency disk I/O s

(d) need for a data-wide path

4. DB, DW and DD directives are used to place data in particular location or to simply allocate space without preassigning anything to space. The DW and DD directories are used to generate

(a) offsets

(b) full address of variables

(c) full address of labels

(d)offsets of full address of labels and variables

5. The number of bits needed to address 4K memory is

(a)6

(b) 8

(c)12

(d) 16

6. The ESC instruction of 8086 may have two formats. In one of the formats, no memory operand is used. Under this format, the number of external op-codes (for the co-processor) which can be specified is?

(a) 64

(b) 128

(c) 256

(d) 512

7. The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one of the following statements is true of TRAP?

(a) It is level triggered

(b) It is negative edge triggered

(c) It is positive edge triggered

(d) It is both positive edge triggered and level triggered

8. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are stored in two consecutive memory locations. The entire word can be read in one operation provided the first

(a) word is even

(b) word is odd

(c) memory location is odd

(d) memory address is even

9. A 3 x 8 decoder with two enable inputs is to be used to address 8 blocks of memory. What will be the size of each memory block when addressed from a sixteen bit bus with two MSBs used to enable the decoder

(a) 2K

(b) 4K

(c)16K

(d) 64K

The following . items consist of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion A ‘ and the other labeled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b)Both A and Rare true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false

(d)A is false but R is true

10. Assertion (A): TTL and CMOS cannot be normally used together.

Reason (R) : .TTL operates on a (±5 0.25) V regulated supply voltage and some mA, while the CMOS operates on unregulated supply voltage of +3 to +15 and some microA.

11. Assertion (A): Machine language program is written in hexadecimal.

Reason (R) : Microprocessor can understand hexadecimal number system.

12.A JK flip-flop has its J input connected to logic level 1 and its K input to the Q

output. A clock pulse is fed to its clock input. The flip-flop will now

(a) change its state at each clock pulse

(b) go to state 1 and stay there

(c) go to state 0 and stay there

(d) retain its previous state

13.A decade counter requires

(a) 10 flip-flops

(b) 4 flip-flops

(c) 3 flip-flops

(d) 2 flip-flops.

14 The decimal value for the BCD coded number 00010010 is

(a) 6

(b) 10

(c)12

(d)18.

15. The Boolean expression (A+C÷D) (B+D+C)

may be simplified as

(a) AB + CB

(b)AB+C+÷D

(c) A+BC+D

(d) A+B+CD.

16. An adder takes……. Input/s and produces………. Output/s

(a) one, two

(b) two, two

(c) three, two

(d) two, three.

17.1 Increasing the precision of the REAL data type requires using at least one additional bit in

(a) the mantissa

(b) the exponent

(c) both the mantissa and the exponent

(d) none of the above.

18. Let * be the binary operation on rational numbers given

a*b=a+b+2ab. Which of following are true?

I. * is commutative

II. There is a rational number that is a*identity

III. Every rational number. has as a* inverse.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) I,II and III

19..How many 1 are present in the binary

representation of 15 x 256 + 5 x 16 + 3?

(a) 8

(b) 9

(c) 10

(d)11

20. Which of the following combinations of gates does not allow the implementation

of an arbitrary Boolean function?

(a) OR gates and inverters only

(b) NAND gates only

(c) OR gates and exclusive – OR gates only

(d) OR gates and NAND gates.

21.Which logic circuit is the fastest?

(a) TTL

(b) DTL

(c) RTL

(d) All have same speed.

22.A half adder has

(a) 2 inputs and 2 outputs

(b) 2 inputs and 3 outputs

(c) 3 inputs and 3 outputs

(d) None of the above.

23. The main advantage of flip-flops over transistor circuit is

(a) immunity from noise

(b) low heating

(c) low propagation delay time

(d) high propagation.

24. The Integrated injection Logic has higher density of integration than TT’L because it

(a) does not require transistors with high current gain and hence they have smaller geometry

(b) uses bipolar transistor

(c) does not require isolation diffusion

(d) uses dynamic logic instead of static logic.

25.In a positive edge triggered JK flip-flop, a

low J and a low K produce the……. state A

high J and a high K mean that the output

will …….on the rising edge of the clock

(a) active…. race

(b) inactive ……dead

(c) inactive …..toggle

(d) active …..constant

26.How many bits does one need to encode all twenty-six letters, ten symbols, and ten

numerals?

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 46

27. Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by two’s complement, one’s

complement, or by sign = and magnitude.In which representation is there overflow

from the addition of the integers 1000 and 011000 ?

(a) Two’s complement only

(b) Sign and magnitude and one’s complement only

(c) Two’s complement and one’s complement only

(d) All three representations.

28. Which of the following sets represents a universal logic family?

(a)NAND

(b)XOR

(c)NAD

(d) None of the above.

29. The maximum propagation value in case of 7400 NAND gates is

(a) 1 second

(b) 20 milli seconds

(c) less than 20 nano seconds

(d) less than 20 pico seconds.

30 . The total number of Boolean functions which can be realized with your variables

Is ?

(a) 4

(b)16

(c) 256

(d) 65,536

Answers :

1 b
2 a
3 c
4 d
5 c
6 b
7 d
8 d
9 c
10 b
11 d
12 a
13 d
14 c
15 b
16 c
17 a
18 c
19 a
20 d
21 a
22 a
23 c
24 b
25 c
26 b
27 d
28 a
29 c
30 b

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General Science Quiz Objective Questions with Answers

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Test your general science knowledge with this MCQ multiple choice quiz
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Science for exams Like
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1. The type of glass used in making lenses and prisms is?
(a) soft glass
(b) pyrex glass
(c)jena glass
(d) flint glass

2. Wood is the main raw material for the manufacture of ?
(a) paint
(b) paper
(c) ink
(d) gun powder

3. How does common salt help in separating soap from the solution after saponification?
(a) By decreasing solubility of soap
(b) By increasing solubility of soap
(c) By decreasing density of soap
(d) By increasing density of soap

4. Which of the following is commonly called a ‘polyamide’?
(a) Rayon
(b) orlon
(c)Terylene
(d) Nylon

5. The major ingredient of leather is ?
(a)carbohydrate
(b) collagen
(c)polymer
(d) nucleic acid

6. In the manufacture of safety matches, which of the following materials are used to coat the two sides of match boxes?
1. Yellow phosphorus
2. Glue
3, Glass powder
4. Red phosphorus
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l,3 and 4
(c) l,2 and 4
(d) 2,3and4

7. Glass is made of the mixture of ?
(a)quartz and mica
(b) sand and salt
(c)sand and silicates
(d) None of these

8. Epoxy resins are used as
(a)moth repellants
(b) insecticides
(c)detergents
(d) adhesives

9.What is condensation?
(a) Change of gas into solid
(b) Change of solid into liquid
(c) Change of vapour into liquid
(d) Change of heat energy into cooling energy

10. Which of the following are true regarding a
catalyst?
1. It is a substance which increases the rate of reaction.
2. It is a substance which reduces the activation energy.
3. It is a substance which increases the activation energy.
4. It is a substance which is consumed in the reaction.
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 4

11. Which of the following is a physical change?
(a)Oxidation
(b) Reduction
(c)Sublimation
(d) Decomposition

12. A substance which changes readily into vapour without heating is called ?
(a)efflorescent
(b) synthetic
(c) volatile
(d) effervescent

13. Catalytic properties of a substance may be best defined as a phenomenon of ?
(a) Absorption
(b) Chemisorption
(c) Adsorption
(d) None of these

14. In which of the following processes light energy is converted into chemical energy?

(a)Respiration
(b) Fermentation
(c)Photosynthesis
(d)Photorespiration

15. Photosynthesis is?
(a) an exothermic process
(b) an endothermic process
(c) a neutral process
(d) a thermostatic process

16. Combustion is the process in which ?
(a) heat is produced.
(b) light is produced.
(c) heat and light are produced.
(d) None of these

17. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is
(a) borax
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) sodium sulphate
(d) ammonium persulphate

18. The rate of chemical reaction does not depend upon ?
(a) Concentration
(b) Catalyst
(c)Temperature
(d) Pressure

19. Which of the following is a chemical change?
(a) Magnetisation of iron
(b)Melting of ice
(c) Burning of sulphur
(d)Melting of wax

20. Which of the following substances undergoes chemical change on heating?
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Silica
(c) Lead nitrate
(d) Platinum wire

21. Water is neither acidic nor alkaline because
(a) it cannot accept or donate protons.
(b) it boils at a high temperature.
(c) it can dissociate into equal number of hydrogen ions.
(d) it cannot donate or accept electrons.

22. Chemical change does not take place in case of?
(a) souring of milk into curd
(b) rusting of iron in atmosphere
(c) burning of magnesium ribbon in air
(d) emitting of light by a red hot platinum wire

23. Vulcanization is a ?
(a) science of studying volcanoes
(b) method to degrade polymers
(c) process connected with the making of voltaic cells
(d) process of hardening of robber by heating it with sulphur

24. Which of the following causes the rusting of iron?
1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Chemical reaction with oxygen
4. Chemical reaction with CO
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) l and 3

25. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The process of oxidation leads to a gain of electrons.
2. The process of oxidation leads to a Toss of electrons.
3. The process of reduction leads to a gain of electrons.
4. The process of reduction leads to a loss of electrons.
(a) l only
(b) l and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only

26. Light year is a unit of measurement of

(a) speed of light
(b) stellar distances
(c) speed of rockets
(d) speed of aero planes

27. One micron is equal to
(a) 1/10th of nm
(b) 1/100th of nm
(c) 1/1000th of nm
(d) 1/10000th of nm

28. Hydrometer is an instrument
(a) for measuring sound under water
(b) to detect the presence of hydrogen in the atmosphere
(c) for measuring the specific gravity of liquids
(d) to detect the changes in atmospheric humidity

29. ‘Bar’ is the unit of ?
(a) heat
(b) temperature
(c) current
(d) atmospheric pressure

30. A chronometer measures
(a) sound waves
(b) time
(c) water waves
(d) colour contrast

31.One fathom is equal to?
(a) 6 meters
(b) 6 feet
(c) 60 feet
(d) 100 cms

32. What is the unit for. measuring the pitch or frequency of sound?
(a)Coulomb
(b) Hum
(c) Cycles
(d) Hertz

33. Electric current is measured by
(a) anemometer
(b) voltmeter
(c)ammeter
(d) commutator

34. Fathom is the unit of ?
(a) sound
(b) depth
(c) distance
(d) frequency

35. Kilohertz is a unit which measures
(a) electric resistance
(b) power used by a current of one ampere
(c) electromagnetic radio wave frequencies
(d)None of these

36. If you swim one km, how many miles do you swim?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.62
(c) 0.84
(d) 1.6

37. Kilowatt is a unit to measure
(a)work
(b) electricity
(c) power
(d)current

38. Very small time intervals are accurately measured by the
(a) Pulsars
(b) Quartz clocks
(c) Atomic clocks
(d) White dwarfs

39. Decibel is the unit used for
(a) speed of light
(b) intensity of heat
(c) intensity of sound
(d) radio wave frequency

40. Which of the following is correct regarding the barometer commonly used in homes to see weather indication?
1. It is called Furlin’s barometer and uses mercury.
2. It is called Furlin’s barometer and uses alcohol.
3. It is called aneroid barometer and uses mercury.
(a)1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Answers:

1 d
2 b
3 a
4 d
5 b
6 c
7 c
8 d
9 c
10 a
11 c
12 c
13 c
14 c
15 b
16 c
17 b
18 d
19 c
20 c
21 c
22 d
23 d
24 c
25 c
26 b
27 c
28 c
29 d
30 b
31 b
32 d
33 c
34 b
35 c
36 b
37 c
38 c
39 c
40 d

Electrical Engineering objective questions MCQ for graduate Engineers Fully Solved

Electrical Engineering objective questions for graduate Engineers Fully Solved
Electrical Engineering: Objective Questions with Answers
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ADVANCED ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Electrical Engineering Interview Questions.
These MCQ questions are very useful for
UPSC IES Exam
UPSC Civil Services Prelims Electrical Engg
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BE Level objective Questions
DD AIR EXAM

1.If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased hr 50% and the frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming that the magnetic circuit remains unsaturated), the maximum core flax density will
(a) change to three times the original value
(b) change to 1.5 times the original value
(c) change to 0.5 times as the original value
(d) remain the same as the original value

2. The low—voltage winding of a core type transformer is subdivided into two equal halves, each of half the original width of the single winding will the high voltage winding in between (instead of having the usual construction of low-voltage winding adjacent to the core and surrounded by the high-voltage winding). Such an interlacing of coils would make the combined primary and secondary leakage reactance (in terms of primary) nearly.
(a)twice
(b) equal
(c)half
(d) one -fourth

3. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected transformers are supplied from the same source. One of the transformers is of. Dy I and the other is of Dy II / connection. The phase difference between the corresponding phase voltages of the secondaries would he
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°

4. In a transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of harmonics k the
(a) overload
(b) poor insulation
(c) iron loss
(d) saturation of core

5. A 40 kVA transformer/ a core loss of400 W and a full load copper of of 800 W. The proportion of full-load at maximum efficiency is
(a)50%
(b) 62.3%
(c) 70.7%
(d)100 %

6.A single phase transformer has rating of 15 KVA 600 / 120 V. It is recommended as an auto transformer to supply at 720 V from a 600 V primary source. The maximum load it can supply is ?
(a)90 kVA
(b)18 kVA
(c)15 kVA
(d) 12 kVA

7. Equalizing pulses in TV are placed during the
(a) vertical blanking period
(b) horizontal blanking period
(c)serration
(d) horizontal retrace

8. The most useful approach to radar system for monitoring the speed of moving vehicles is:
(a) Pulsed radar
(b) Monopulse
(c)Doppler radar
(d) Auto tracking radar

9. A. dc shunt generator, when driven at its rated speed, is found to he not generating any voltage. Which of the following would account for this?
I. There is no residual magnetism
2. The connection of the field winding is not proper with respect to the armature terminals.
3. The resistance of the field circuit is greater than the critical field resistance.
4. The load resistance is less than the critical armature resistance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)3 and 4
(b)l,2 and 4
(c)1,2 and 3
(d)l.2,3 and 4

10. To have spark/as commutation, the armature reaction effect in a dc machine is neutralised by
(a) using compensating winding and commutating poles
(b) Shifting the brush axis from the geometrical neutral axis to the magnetic neutral axis
(c) fixing the brush axis in line with the pole axis
(d) increasing the field excitation

11.In a dc shunt general or working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the direction of rotation, as a result of this, commutation will
(a)improve but terminal voltage will fall -
(b)worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) worsen and terminal voltage will rise

12. Consider the following statements:
The maximum range of radar can be increased by
1. increasing the peak transmitted power
2. increasing the gain of the receiver
3. increasing the diameter of the antenna
4. reducing the wavelength used
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d)1 and 3 are correct

13. Consider the following statements about broadband communication using submarine cables:
1. A submarine cable repeater contains filters for the two directions of transmits
2. Armored submarine cable is used for the shallow-shore ends of the cable.
3. Fibre optic submarine cable is used to prevent inadvertent ploughing in of the cable
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

14. A dc overcompounded generator was operating satisfactorily and supplying power to an infinite bus when the prime mover failed to supply any mechanical power. The machine would then run as a ?
(a) cumulatively compounded motor with speed reversed
(b) cumulatively compounded motor with direction of rotation as before
(c) differentially compounded motor with speed reversed
(d) differentially compounded motor with direction of speed as before.

15 To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, It is best to use a
(a) slotted line
(b) balun
(c)directional coupler
(a) quarter-wave transformer

16. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(a) damping toruqe
(b) eddy current torque
(c)torques aiding the developing torque
(d) no torque

17. For a given developed power, a synchronous motor operating from a constant voltage and constant frequency supply, will draw the minimum and maximum armature currents, Imin and Imax respectively, corresponding to?
(a)Imin at unity pf, but Imax at zero pf
(b) Imax at unity p, but Imin at zero p1
(c) both Imin and Imax at unity pf
(d )both Imin and Imax at zero pf

18. Consider the folio wing statements regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive
2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 180
4. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 360
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct

19 While conducting a “slip “ test for determination of direct and quadrature axis synchronous reactance ‘Xd’ and ‘Xq’ of salient pole synchronous machine, the rotor of the machine is run with a slip ‘s’ and stator supply frequency ‘f’. The frequency of
1. voltage induced across open field terminals,
2. envelope of the armature terminal voltage.
3. envelope of the armature current, and
4. armature current
will be respectively
(a) sf, sf,sf and f
(b) sf, f,sf and f
(c) f, sf,f and af
(d) f, (1-s)f,(2-s)f and sf

20. If two induction motors A and B are identical except that the air-gap of motor ‘A ‘ is 59% greater than that of motor ‘B’, then
(a) the no-load power factor of A will be better than that of B.
(b) the no-load power factor of A will be poorer than that of B.
(c) the core losses of A will be more than those of B
(d) the operating flux of A will be smaller than that of B.

21 A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous motor and an 8-pole, 50 Hz. 3—phase slipring induction motor are mechanically coupled and operate on the some 3-phase, 50 Hz supply system If they are left open-circuited, then the frequency of the voltage produced across any two slip rings would be?
(a) 12.5 Hz
(b) 25.0 Hz
(c) 37.5 Hz
(d) 50.0 Hz

22. Which of the following statements regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor are correct?
I. It prevents cogging;
2. It produces more uniform torque.
3. it increases starting torque.
4. It reduces motor ‘hum’ during its operation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a)2,3 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c)1,3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 4

23. The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor copper loss will be
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W
(d) 700 W

24. If an input signal with non-zero dc component is applied to a low pass RC network, the dc component in the output will be ?
(a) the same as that in the input
(b) less than that in the input
(c) more than that in the input
(d) zero

25. A 3 phase wound rotor induction motor, when started with load connected to its shaft, was found to start but settle down at about half synchronous speed. If the rotor winding as well as the stator winding were star connected, then the cause of the malfunction could be attributed to
(a) one of the stator phase windings being short–circuited
(b) one of the supply fuses being blown
(c) one of the rotor phases being open-circuited
(d) two of the rotor phases being open circuited

26. Consider the following statements regarding fractional horse power shaded-pole motor:
1. Its direction of rotation is from unshaded to shaded portion of the poles.
2.. Its direction of rotation is from shaded to unshaded portion of the poles.
3. It can remain stalled for short periods without any harm.
4. It has a very poor power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct

27. In the case of a converter-inverter speed control arrangement f an induction motor operating with v/f constant and with negligible stator impedance.
(a) the maximum torque is independent of frequency
(b) the maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(c) the slip at maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(d) the starting torque is proportional to frequency

28 An amplifier with mid-band gain A = 500 has negative feedback beta = 1/100 the upper cut-off without feedback were at 60 kHz, then with feedback it would become
(a) 10kHz
(b) 12kHz
(c) 300 kHz
(d) 360 kHz

29. If the discharge is 1 m cube and the head of water is 1 m then the power generated by the alternator in one hour (assume 100% efficiency of generator and turbine) will be
(a) 10kW
(b) 73/75kW
(c) 746/75kW
(d) 100kw

30. Control rods used In unclear reactors are made of
(a) zirconium
(b) boron
(c) beryllium
(d) lead

31. if alpha = 0.98, Ico=6 microA I beta =100 microA for a transistor, Then the value of Ic will he
(a) 2.3mA
(b) 3.lmA
(c) 4.6mA
(d) 5.2mA

32. In a 3-core extra-high voltage cable, a metallic screen around each core-insulation is provided to
(a) facilitate heat dissipation
(h) give mechanic strength
(c) obtain radial electric stress
(d) obtain longitudinal electric stress

33. Galloping In transmission line conductors arises generally due to
(a) asymmetrical layers of ice formation
(b) vortex phenomenon in light winds
(c) heavy weight of the line conductors
(d) adoption of horizontal conductor configurations

34.. In a 3- phase rectifier circuit, thyristor number 1, 2 and 3 are connected respectively to R, Y and B phases of the star-connected transformer secondary. When the current is being commutated front thyristor No. 1 to No. 2, the effect of the transformer leakage and the ac system Inductance will be such that it will?

(a) Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and delay the turn on of No. 2 correspondingly.
(b) stop the conduction in No. 1 at the scheduled time, but delay the turn on of No. 2
(c) produce conduction in both No. 1 and No. 2 in parallel for an overlapping period through a transient
(d) double the voltage output through a commutation transient

35. The incremental generating costs of two generating units are given by
IC1=0.10 X + 20 Rs /MWhr
IC1=0.15 Y + 18 Rs /MWhr
where X and V are power generated by the two units in MW.
For a total demand of 300 MW, the value (in MW) of X and Y will be respectively
(a) 172 and 123
(b) 123 and 172
(c) 175 and 125
(d) 200 and 100

36. Consider the following statements:
To provide reliable protection for a distribution transformer against over voltages using lightning arrestors, it is essential that the
1. lead resistance is high.
2. distance between the transformer and the arrestor is small
3. transformer and the arrestor have a common inter-connecting ground.
4. Spark over voltage of the arrestor is greater than the residual voltage.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct

37. The reflection coefficient of a short-circuited line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) zero

38.Iif an intrinsic semiconductors is doped with a very small amount of born then in the extrinsic semiconductor so farmed, the number of electrons and holes will
(a)decrease
(b) increase and decrease respectively
(c)increase
(d) decrease and increase respectively

39. Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to
(a) reduce weight of copper
(b) improve stability
(c) reduce corona
(d) increase power transmission capacity

40. In the solution of load-flow equation, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is superior to the Gauss- Seidel (GS) method, because the
(a) time taken to perform one iteration in the NR method is less When compared to the time taken in the OS method
(b) number of iterations required in the NR method is more when compared to that in the GS method
(c) number of iterations required is not independent of the size of the system in the NR method
(d) convergence characteristics of the NR method are not affected by the selection of slack bus

41. In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a conventional winding rotor because of
(a) higher efficiency
(b) increased steady-state stability limit
(c) higher short-circuit ratio
(d) better damping

42. Consider the following statements regarding speed control of induction motors by means of external rotor resistors:
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by reduced efficiency.
2. With a large resistance in the rotor circuit, the speed would vary considerably with variation in torque
3. The method is very complicated
The Disadvantages of such a method of speed control would include
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

43. Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are in ?
(a) grounded star/delta
(b) delta/star
(c) star/grounded star
(d) delta/delta

44. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The Zero Sequence current in this case will be
(a) zero
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 66.6A
(d) 100 A

45. Consider the following statements:
Switched mode power supplies are preferred over the continuous types, because they are

1. suitable for use in both ac and dc.
2; more efficient,
3. suitable for low-power circuits.
4. suitable for high-power circuits.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct

46. The power generated by two plants are P1 = 50MW, P2= 40 MW.
If the loss coefficients are B11 = 0.001, B22 = 0.0025 and B12 = -0.0005, the power loss will be
(a)5.5 MW
(b) 6.5 MW
(c) 4.5Mw
(d) 8.5 MW

47. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum when then duty cycle is?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.9

48. The following data pertain to two alternators working in parallel and supplying a total load of 80 MW:
Machine 1 : 40 MVA with 5% speed regulation
Machine 2: 60 MVA with 5% speed regulation
The load sharing between machines 1 and 2 will be
(a)P1/48MW, P2/32MW
(b) 40MW. 40MW
(c)30MW,50MW
(d) 32 MW. 48MW

49. The per unit impedance of a synchronous machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is Increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value will be
(a)0.266
(b) 0.242
(c)0.220
(d) 0.200

50. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive load at a firing angle of alpha = 60°. The average value of current flowing in the load is 10 A, If a very large inductance is connected in the load circuit, then the
(a) average value of current will remain as 10 A
(b) average value of current wilt become greater than 10 A
(c) average value of current will become less than 10 A
(d) trend of variation of current cannot be predicted unless the exact value of the inductance connected is known

Answers

1 a
2 c
3 c
4 d
5 c
6 a
7 a
8 c
9 c
10 a
11 a
12 b
13 c
14 d
15 b
16 d
17 a
18 b
19 c
20 a
21 b
22 c
23 b
24 a
25 a
26 b
27 a
28 d
29 d
30 b
31 d
32 a
33 a
34 c
35 a
36 c
37 a
38 d
39 c
40 d
41 b
42 a
43 a
44 b
45 c
46 a
47 b
48 c
49 d
50 b

Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam

Model test paper General Awareness IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam
Sample Questions on General Awareness
Very useful For BED Entrance exams
Can be used as practice papers for other entrance exams
1. The aim of the ISRO,s OCEANSAT-2 satellite is
(A) to provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) to aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) to aid weathermen to forecast cylones and weather conditions
(D) All of the above
D

2. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
A

3. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(A) Aircraft carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
B

4. The age of a tree can be calculated by
(A) number of branches
(B) its height
(C) girth of its trunk
(D) number of its annual rings
D

5. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise.
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers.
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output.
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase.
D

6. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
D

7. A rolling plan refers to a plan which
(A) does not change its targets every year.
(B) changes its allocations every year.
(C) changes its allocations and targets every year.
(D) changes only its targets every year.
C

8. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is
(A) open market operations
(B) credit rationing
(C) change in reserve ratio
(D) bank rate policy
D

9. Laissez-faire is a feature of
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
C

10. Which one of the-following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
D

11. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
B

12. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
B

13. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
C

14. According to J.A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their ______ activities.
(A innovative
(B) risk taking
(C)risk averting
(D) hard work
A

15. Demonstration effect means
(A) effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) effect of entertainment
(D effect of an experiment
D

16. Homogeneous product is a feature
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
C

17. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(Q) Directive Principles of State Policy
D

.18. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic ‘assessment of the Government”
(A) Dr. B Ambedkar
(B) Shri B.N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A

19. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
A

20. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is
(A)30 minutes
(B) one hour
(C)two hours
(D) unspecified
B

21. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
C

22. When will demand become a grant?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
C

23. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
A

24. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
D

25. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice- President can be heard by
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
C

256. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of
(A) the village, the block and the district levels
(B) the mandal and the district levels
(C) the village, the district and the State levels
(D) the village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
A

27. Which of the following has banned ‘floor Crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
A

28. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to
(A) those sections of society which pay Income-tax.
(B) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced.
(C) those sections of ‘the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) all sections of upper castes of the society
B

29. When was the Panchtantra written?
(A) Maurya period
(B) Kanishka period
(C) Gupta period
(D) Harsha period
C

FCI (godown) sample paper Model Paper GK Also useful for AG III Accounts QC

FCI (godown) sample paper Model Paper GK
Food Corporation of India asst. grade III godown
sample paper of FCI (assistant gradeIII) based on previous papers
Free downloadable question papers GK
India GK for Assistant Grade III in FCI exam model test paper
1. Kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy in
(A) Electric Motor
(B) Dynamo
(C) Electromagnet
(D) Ammeter
B

2. Floppy disk is an example of
(A) Read Only Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Cache Memory
(D) Secondary Storage Memory
D

3. Which of the following compounds are sprayed over clouds to cause artificial rain?
(A)Ice
(B) NaOH
(C)AgI
(D) NH4CL
C

4. Iodine deficiency in diet is know to cause
(A)rickets
(B) obesity
(C)scurvy
(D) goitre
D

5. The refrigeration of the food articles keeps them fresh because
(A) water forms crystals
(B) chemical reaction is slowed down
(C) chemical reaction take place faster
(D) bacteria are killed
D

6. Which substance is called the ‘liquid gold’?
(A) Gold as a liquid form
(B) Sodium as a liquid form
(C) Mustard oil
(D) Petroleum oil
D

7. Percentage of silver in German
silver is
(A)25°/o
(B) 0%
(C)75°/o
(D) 80%
There is no Silver

8. Which type of compounds are
sugar and common salt?
(A) Both are organic compounds
(B) Both are inorganic compounds
(C) Sugar is an organic compound and common salt is an inorganic compound
(D) Sugar is inorganic compound and common salt is an organic compound
C

9. The chemical name of Vitamin ‘E’ is
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Retinol
(C) Tocopherol
(D) Thiamine
C

10. Which of the following gases has bleaching property
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Chlorine
(D) Hydrogen
C
11. The heaviest body of our Solar system is
(A)Sun
(B) Uranus
(C)Jupiter
(D) Saturn
A

12. From amongst the following; Name
famous Indian ornithologist
(A) Dr. Salim Ali
(B) Dr. Gopalasamudram N. Ramachandran
(C) Dr. J.B.S. Haldane
(D) Dt H.G. Khorana
a

13. Who performed the longest space journey in the year 2007
(A). Venus Williams
(B) Serena Willlams
(C) Sunita William
(D) Sir John William
C

14. ‘The Lost Child’ was written by
(A) Nirad C. Chowdlltiury
(B) Mulk Raj Anand
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Annie Besant
B

15. Dr. MS. Swaminathan has distinguished himself in which of the following fields ?
(A) Nuclear Physics
(B) Agriculture
(C) Astrophysics
(D) Medicine
B

16. The Headquarters of UNESCO
at
(A)Rome
(B) Geneva
(C)Paris
(D) New York
C

17. January 15 is celebrated as the
(A) Army Day
(B) Martyr’s Day
(C) Independence Day
(D)) Ugadhi
A

18. Bijapur is known for its
(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Rock Temple
(C) Gol Gumbaj
(D) Statue of Gomateshwara
C

19. The Americans are also known as
(A) Kiwis
(B) Yankees
(C) Tories
(D) None of the above
B

20. India lifted the ONGC Nehru Cup, 2009, after defeating in the final
(A)Syria
(B) Pakistan
(C)Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
A

21. An element which does not react
with oxygen is
(A)Chlorine
(B) Iodine
(C)Helium
(D) Nitrogen
C

22. During sleep, man’s blood pressure
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) fluctuates
(D) remains constant
B

23. Which Indian fllrnstar was recently conferred Honorary Doctorate by Bedfordshire University (U.K.) ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Shah Rukh Khan
(C) Orn Puri
(D) Aamir Khan
B

24. Williams Sisters won the U.S. Open Women’s Doubles Title 2009 after defeating in the final
(A) Leizal Huber and Cara Black
(B) Kim Clijsters and Anna Kournikova
(C) Caroline Woaniacki and Dinara Safina
(D) Nathalie Deshy and Sania Mirza
A

25. Which one of the following is a military alliance ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) SAARC
(C)NATO
(D) NAFTA
C

26. The recipient of the 42nd Jnanpeeth Award is
(A) Manohar Shastri
(B) Harish Pandya
(C) Satya Vrat Shastri
(D) K Kamal Kumar
C

27. World Development Report is an annual publication of
(A)UNICEF
(B) UNDP
(C)WTO
(D) World Bank
D

28. Which one of the following is correct ?
Player Sport
(A) Jeev Milkha — Tennis
Singh
(B) Jhulan — Cricket
Goswami
(C) Baichung Bhutia — Hockey
(D) Pankaj Advani — Badminton
B

29. Which one of the following industrialists was declared ‘The Business Person of the Year 2008’ by the Times of India Survey ?
(A) Anil Ambani
(B) Rahul Bajaj
(C) Ratan Tata
(D) Gautam Adani
C

30. Naina Devi peak forms a part of
(A) Himalayan range located in Sikkim
(B) Himalayan range located in Kumaon region
(C) Himalayan range located in Nepal
(D) Himalayan range located in Jammu & Kashmir
B

Indian History Sample paper BA level

Indian History Sample paper BA level
solved history sample paper.
b.a.history model question papers
Indian history Quiz multiple Choice questions Free
Questions, Multiple Choice Question Answers

1. Which one of the following ancient cities is not related to the life of Gautam Budctha?
(A) Champa
(B) Saketa
(C) Pataliputra
(D) Kosambi

2. The term ‘Rupadarshaka’ de notes what?
(A) The supervisor of prostitutes
(B) The supervisor of royal harem
(C) The supervisor of the quality of coins
(D) The supervisor of the folk- dancers

3. Which,one of the statements is contrtversial in the context of the treaty of 303 B.C. between Chandragupta and Seleucus?
(A) Seleucus surrendered his large territories to handragupta
(B) Chandragupta made a gift of 500 elephants to Seleucus
(C) Megasthenes was sent as a Greek envoy to the court of Chandragupta
(D) Seleucus gave his daughter in marriage to Chandragupta

4. In which year of Asoka’s coronation did the Kalinga war take place?
(A) First
(B) Fifth
(C) Eighth
(D) Thirteenth

5. Which among the following com binations is correct?
(A) Pushyamitra Shunga—Patanjali
(B) Kanishka—Thera Nagasena
(C) Menander—Ashvaghosh
(D) Chandragupta 1—Harishena

6. Which Gupta emperor has been called ‘Lichchhavi-dauhitra’?
(A) Shrigupta
(B) Chandragupta I
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Samudragupta

7. Which Kushana king adopted the epithet ‘dhrama-thida’?
(A) Vim Kadaphises
(B) Kuzul Kadaphises
(C) Kanishka the Great
(D) Huvishka

8. Which of the following inscriptions record the annihilation OF
Hunas?
(A) Prayag-Prashasti
(B) Bhitari Inscription
(C) Junagarh Inscription
(D) Mandasor Inscription

9. Who impressed upon Harsha to incline towards Buddhism?
(A) Bhikshu Mahakashyapa
(B) Hiuen-Tsang
(C) Thera Nagasen
(D) Diwakarmitra

10. Which king is called ‘Kaviraj’ in one of his inscriptions?
(A) Pratihara king Mihirbhoja
(B)Paramara king Bhoja
(C)Pala king Dharmapala
(D)Chalukya king Kumarapala

11. Who among these is credited with the construction of ‘Pagodas’ at Mahabalipuram?
(A) Cholas
(B) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(C) Pallavas
(D) Pandyas

12. The Office-in-charge of collection of revenue in the Mauryan administration was?
(A) Sannidhatri
(B) Pradeshta
(C) Yukta
(D) Samahatri

13. Which of the statements about the trade regulation in the Mauryan period is not correct?
(A) The state exercised control over the trade process and profits
(B) A levy of 1/10th was fixed on merchandise
(C) The state kept strict vigil on the sale of merchandise
(D) The state employed a few of the artisans directly

14. Which one among the following
statements about the land-system of post-Mauryan period is not true?
(A) The private individuals had absolute right over their land
(B) The private individuals had limited right to alienation of land
(C) There is no record to trans fer of land non-religious purposes
(D) The person who brought the land under cultivation was the owner

15. Who among the following constituted the local town administration council during the
Guptas?
(A) Purupala, Sarthavaha,
Pratham Kulika, Pratham
Kayastha
(B) Purupala, Sarthavaha,
Dvarapala, Karnika
(C) Sarthavaha, Pratham Kulika,
Pratham Kayastha
(D) Purupala, Pratham Kulika,
Pratham Kayastha

16. Who lamented upon the drain of gold from Rome to India?
(A) Ptolemy
(C) Strabo
(B) Nero
(d) Pliny

17. Which of the following statements about the agrahara land grant is not correct?
(A) The king could offer it to any one
(B) It was a village granted tax- free to Brahmans
(C) The king could confiscate it on being displeased by the grantee
(D) It underlined the privileges of the Brahmans

18. Debasement of the coins and gradual disappearance of gold- coins during the post-Gupta period indicates?
(A) Cheapness of commodities, no need of gold-coins
(B) Non-availability of gold
(C) Decline of money economy
(D) Decline of Trade

19. Which new route was added for foreign trade during Gupta period?
(A) Overseas route to SouthAfrica
(B) Overseas route to Alexandria
(C) Overland route to China
(D) Overland route to North Russia

20. The most famous bi image of the Chola period belongs to
(A) Murugan
(B) Nataraja
(C) Venkateshwar
(D) Vishnu
ANSWERS:

1 C
2 C
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 B
7 B
8 C
9 D
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 B
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 D
19 C
20 B

Sample paper history of india Graduation BA level

Sample paper history of india Graduation BA level
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Tough questions on indian History

1. Which among the following Vedas is partly in prose?





2. Which one among the following is a Tamil grammatical treatise?





3.. Who was the first to decipher the inscriptions of Ashoka and the Brahmi script?





4. Select the correct statement about the Nanaghat Inscription of the Satavahanas





5. Which among the following ex cavated sites is related to Malwa culture?





6. In which one of the following regions the earliest evidence of rice cultivation has come?





7. Horse remains are found at which of the foliowing Harappan sites?





8. Identify the incorrect combination among the following





9. At which place among these the rows of distinctive fire altars with provision of ritual bathing have been found?





10.. The main focus of the Rigvedic culture was?





11. The Rigvedic king did not maintain an administrative machinery because?





12.. Which of the following statements regarding Vedic woman is not correct?





13.For what reason the ganasamgha areas have been indicated as ‘mlechchhadesha’ in the post-Vedic period?





14. With what name the Jainism referred to before the coming of Mahavir?





15. Which tradition has most Important for deciding the dates of birth and death of lord Buddha?








Model Test General Intelligence SSC Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks

Model Test General Intelligence SSC Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks
General Intelligence & Reasoning Quiz
SSC DATA ENTRY OPERATOR AND LDCs Free Mock Test
Free online Quiz
Multiple Choice Questions

1. R Goes 1 Km North .Then he takes a left turn and goes 2 Km.
Then again he takes a left Turn. Which Direction is he facing Now?
(A) East
(B)West
(C) North
(D)South

2. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from
Mumbai, rest are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are
short. A, C and D are girls, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?
(A) F
(B)D
(C) E
(D) C

3. P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the Sister of R. How is Q related to S?

(A) brother
(B) sister
(C) brother or sister
(D) son

4. Cat-Kitten; Goat-kid; Sheep-?
(A)colt
(B) filly
(C)lamb
(D) wool

5. Cataract-eye; Jaundice-liver; Pyorrhea-?
(A) breath
(B) tongue
(C) ears
(D) teeth

6. Blue-moon; Blue-black; Black-?
(A) sheep
(B) goat
(C) sky
(D) star

Directions—(Q. 7 to 9) A principle/principles and a fact situation are given in the following questions. Decide only on the basis of the principle(s)
7. Principles:
(i) Neighbour principle-A person is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects another.
(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations.

Facts:
X manufacturers a food item and sells his food item to Y a whole seller.Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because?
(A) of contractual relations
(B) of the Food Adulteration Act
(C) the consumer is the neighbour of X
(D) of the consumer protection law

8. Principles:
(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternatives.
(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak.
Facts:
X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X’s assertion is—
(A) wrong
(B) right
(C) wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speak
(D) right because X may opt to speak or not to speak

9. Principles:
(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant.
(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and on behalf of his master.
Facts:
X bank launched a saving scheme for poor sections of the society and the customer can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable. Decide
(A) the Bank is liable because it paid commission to Y
(B) the Bank is liable because Y was their servant
(C) the Bank is not liable because Y was not their servant
(D) No one is liable

10. In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The code for the name Ram Kumar is—
(A) Ten Ronet
(B) Len Finol
(C) Pen Sinet
(D) Elephant

Directions—(Q. 11 and 12) Four of the given five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group in the following questions?
11.
(1)217
(2) 143
(3)214
(4) 171
(5)131
(A)1
(B)5
(C)2
(D)3

12. (1)gourd
(2) radish
(3)spinach
(4) cucumber
(5) beetroot

(A) radish
(B) beetroot
(C) Potato
(D) spinach

Directions—(Q. 13 to 15) Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries in the following questions
13.
(A) house
(B) mortgage
(C) hypothecation
(D) immovable property

14.
(A) Law
(B) Court
(C) Morality
(D) Judge

15.
(A) Freedom of speech
(B) Right to equality
(C) Freedom of religion
(D) Right to make contract

Directions—.(Q. 16 to 20) In the following questions a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in relation to the question are either weak or strong. Use this key to given your responses—
(A) Argument I is strong
(B) Argument II is strong
(C) Both I and II are strong
(D) Both I and II are weak

16. Question Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?
Argument I : No, This will render thousands of workers jobless.
Argument II :Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour.

17. Question Should private operators be allowed to operate passenger train service in India?
Argument I : No, private operators do not agree to operate on non profitable sectors.
Argument II : Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway Service
.
18. Question : Should the system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be introduced in private sector?
Argument I Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups.
Argument II: No, this would effect merit.

19. Question: Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?
Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
Argument II: Yes, this will bring relief to old parents.

20. Question : Should right to primary education be made a fundamental right?
Argument I : We should first complete other developmental project, education of children may wait.
Argument II : Yes, without primary education for all, there cannot be inclusive development.

21. Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Jairam. Who among them is the heaviest?
(A)Jairarn
(B) Anand
(C)Gulab
(D) Pramesh

22. Ravi is the brother of Amit’s son.
How is Amit related to Ravi?
(A) Cousin
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather.

23. If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then
STABLE will be coded as
(A)TPADAY
(B) TPCDCY
(C)TPCDAY
(D) TPCYAY

24. If CHARTER is coded UMOEPYE, then PARTNER will
be coded as
(A) AONPCYE
(B) AEEPCYE
(C) AOEACYE
(D) AOEPCYE

25. Constituent Assembly : Constitution:: Parliament:?
(A) Statute
(B) Legislative bills
(C) Speaker
(D) Prime Minister

26. Right: duty:: Power:?
(A)Wrong
(B) Weak
(C) Powerless
(D) Liability

27. Patient: Doctor :: Litigant:?
(A) Advisor
(B) Help
(C) Legal aid
(D) Lawyer

28. Prosecutor : Accused ::plaintiff:?
(A) Appellant
(B) Defendant
(C)Plaint
(D) Suit

29. India : Parliamentary System ::USA:?
(A) Democratic System
(B) Presidential System
(C) Federal System
(D) Republican System

30. Executive : President :: Judiciary:?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Constitution
(D) Government of India

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each of the following questions, two statements are given. There may or may not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Mark your answer using this code
(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect
(C) Both the statements are independent causes
(D) Both the statements are independent effects

31. Statement I : School education has been made free for children of poor families.
Statement II :Literacy rate among the poor is steadily growing.

32. Statement I : Hallmarking of gold jewellary has been made compulsory.
Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellary.

33. Statement I Many vegetarians are suffering stomach ailments.
Statement II: Many dead fish were found near the lake shore.

34. Statement I: Ahmed is a healthy boy.
Statement II: His mother is very particular about the food he eats.

35. Statement I : Rate of crime is very low in this city.
Statement II : The police is efficient in this city.

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) In each of the following questions a statement is followed by two assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement. Select your response in accordance with the following codes—
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
(D) Neither of the assumptions I and II is implicit

36. Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities accordingly.
Assumption II: Ram has under stood the instructions.
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly

37. Statement : Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes.
Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong.
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound.

38. Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for employment without assigning any reason while short listing candidates for interview.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices.
Assumption II : The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible.

39. Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers.
Assumption I : The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of people.
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future.

40. Statement : You can win over new friends by your warm smile.
Assumption I: It is necessary to win over new friends.
Assumption II : It is always better to smile warmly to new persons.

Answers:

1 D
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 C
8 D
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 D
16 A
17 B
18 A
19 A
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 D
25 B
26 D
27 D
28 B
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 B
33 D
34 B
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 A
40 B